DO HAMLET'S MASKS INCLUDE MELANCHOLIC MISOGYNY?
In an article from the 1995 edition of Hamlet Studies, Francesca Bugliani (Knox) interprets Hamlet's famous "To be or not to be" soliloquy. She does not consider biblical allusions, like Job's dilemma of whether to remain faithful to his God, or to curse God and die (a sort of "to be or not to be" crossroads). But she has a wealth of insightful observations.
I've said before that I don't buy the Freudian explanation for Hamlet's apparent misogyny to Gertrude and Ophelia, but the Christian biblical and cultural tradition in which the play was written was certainly patriarchal and misogynist.
Bugliani suggests it's melancholic misogyny, and may be one of many forms of feigned madness. But why feign melancholy misogyny with Ophelia? To sound her out, suspecting she's working with the enemy? To push her away from the threat to his life? (Or both?) In contemplating revenge and the sinful impulses of his family, he knows he himself is a danger.
In one possible scenario, Hamlet pushes her away out of love and anger, but later proclaims his love for Ophelia over her grave, taking off the mask of the melancholic misogynist?
What do you think?
Here's the excerpt on Hamlet's melancholic masks from Bugliani's good essay:
#Shakespeare #Hamlet #Literature #Bible #Religion #Renaissance #EarlyModern #theatre #Drama #literarycriticism #masks #misogyny #Melancholy
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Links to a description of my book project:
On LinkedIn: https://lnkd.in/eJGBtqV
On this blog: https://pauladrianfried.blogspot.com/2017/05/hamlets-bible-my-book-project-im.html
[Originally posted around the week of 10/16/17
on LinkedIn]
In an article from the 1995 edition of Hamlet Studies, Francesca Bugliani (Knox) interprets Hamlet's famous "To be or not to be" soliloquy. She does not consider biblical allusions, like Job's dilemma of whether to remain faithful to his God, or to curse God and die (a sort of "to be or not to be" crossroads). But she has a wealth of insightful observations.
I've said before that I don't buy the Freudian explanation for Hamlet's apparent misogyny to Gertrude and Ophelia, but the Christian biblical and cultural tradition in which the play was written was certainly patriarchal and misogynist.
Bugliani suggests it's melancholic misogyny, and may be one of many forms of feigned madness. But why feign melancholy misogyny with Ophelia? To sound her out, suspecting she's working with the enemy? To push her away from the threat to his life? (Or both?) In contemplating revenge and the sinful impulses of his family, he knows he himself is a danger.
In one possible scenario, Hamlet pushes her away out of love and anger, but later proclaims his love for Ophelia over her grave, taking off the mask of the melancholic misogynist?
What do you think?
Here's the excerpt on Hamlet's melancholic masks from Bugliani's good essay:
#Shakespeare #Hamlet #Literature #Bible #Religion #Renaissance #EarlyModern #theatre #Drama #literarycriticism #masks #misogyny #Melancholy
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Links to a description of my book project:
On LinkedIn: https://lnkd.in/eJGBtqV
On this blog: https://pauladrianfried.blogspot.com/2017/05/hamlets-bible-my-book-project-im.html
[Originally posted around the week of 10/16/17
on LinkedIn]
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