TO INTEND, OR NOT TO INTEND?
(Biblical Allusion & Author Intention in Shakespeare as Writer) In Hamlet and other plays, are biblical plot echoes there due to the author’s conscious intention? Or did he absorb so many biblical ideas/phrases/plot structures that it was often (a-hem) unconscious/unintentional/accidental? —Hamlet has more explicit (chapter-&-verse) biblical allusions than any other of Shakespeare’s plays (in part because it’s so long). —Many would claim: if an allusion is explicit, the playwright probably intended it. —But if it’s a plot echo of Jonah, or King David, or Emmaus, with no explicit quote/allusion to those parts of the bible, is it unconscious/not intended? —If conscious, did he make these plot echoes more subtle/inexplicit for aesthetic reasons (not to sound too preachy)? Or sometimes to make a risky political statement, but avoid the censors? —If unconscious, what does that mean? —If I internalize driving on one side of the road because that’s how it’s done in my cu