TO INTEND, OR NOT TO INTEND?
(Biblical Allusion & Author Intention in Shakespeare as Writer)
In Hamlet and other plays, are biblical plot echoes there due to the author’s conscious intention? Or did he absorb so many biblical ideas/phrases/plot structures that it was often (a-hem) unconscious/unintentional/accidental?
—Hamlet has more explicit (chapter-&-verse) biblical allusions than any other of Shakespeare’s plays (in part because it’s so long).
—Many would claim: if an allusion is explicit, the playwright probably intended it.
—But if it’s a plot echo of Jonah, or King David, or Emmaus, with no explicit quote/allusion to those parts of the bible, is it unconscious/not intended?
—If conscious, did he make these plot echoes more subtle/inexplicit for aesthetic reasons (not to sound too preachy)? Or sometimes to make a risky political statement, but avoid the censors?
—If unconscious, what does that mean?
—If I internalize driving on one side of the road because that’s how it’s done in my culture, would you ask if I intended to ride on that side, merely because I do it out of habit?
—If I’m not passed-out, isn’t it still conscious/intentional at some level?
[P.S. on the other hand, if I am a fish swimming in a lake, I take water for granted;
if the lake is a culture where bible reading in the vernacular is newly available and very popular,
and where church attendance is mandated by law, enforced by fines and threat of suspicion of treason,
then am I really free to choose and intend NOT to allude to the bible?]
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
[Originally posted around the week of 7/30/18
on LinkedIn]
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Links to a description of my book project:
On LinkedIn: https://lnkd.in/eJGBtqV
On this blog: https://pauladrianfried.blogspot.com/2017/05/hamlets-bible-my-book-project-im.html
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
#Shakespeare #Bible #Hamlet #Literature #LiteraryCriticism #Drama #Theatre #EarlyModern #religion #Renaissance #EnglishLiterature
In Hamlet and other plays, are biblical plot echoes there due to the author’s conscious intention? Or did he absorb so many biblical ideas/phrases/plot structures that it was often (a-hem) unconscious/unintentional/accidental?
—Hamlet has more explicit (chapter-&-verse) biblical allusions than any other of Shakespeare’s plays (in part because it’s so long).
—Many would claim: if an allusion is explicit, the playwright probably intended it.
—But if it’s a plot echo of Jonah, or King David, or Emmaus, with no explicit quote/allusion to those parts of the bible, is it unconscious/not intended?
—If conscious, did he make these plot echoes more subtle/inexplicit for aesthetic reasons (not to sound too preachy)? Or sometimes to make a risky political statement, but avoid the censors?
—If unconscious, what does that mean?
—If I internalize driving on one side of the road because that’s how it’s done in my culture, would you ask if I intended to ride on that side, merely because I do it out of habit?
—If I’m not passed-out, isn’t it still conscious/intentional at some level?
[P.S. on the other hand, if I am a fish swimming in a lake, I take water for granted;
if the lake is a culture where bible reading in the vernacular is newly available and very popular,
and where church attendance is mandated by law, enforced by fines and threat of suspicion of treason,
then am I really free to choose and intend NOT to allude to the bible?]
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
[Originally posted around the week of 7/30/18
on LinkedIn]
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Links to a description of my book project:
On LinkedIn: https://lnkd.in/eJGBtqV
On this blog: https://pauladrianfried.blogspot.com/2017/05/hamlets-bible-my-book-project-im.html
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
#Shakespeare #Bible #Hamlet #Literature #LiteraryCriticism #Drama #Theatre #EarlyModern #religion #Renaissance #EnglishLiterature
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